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|EC-G ATE Paper| All rights reserved by Gateforum Educational Services Pvt. Ltd. No part of this Statement for Linked Answer Questions: 52 & Web:homeranking.info 4. GATE ECE. SUBJECT. NO OF. QUESTION. Topics Asked in Paper. Total. Marks. Engineering. Mathematics. 1M: 4. Dear all,. Here is the question paper of: GATE ECE (Paper Set Code: A of EC Paper): GATE EC Question Paper (Set A).

Let be the -transform of []. Blank pages are provided at the end of the Question Booklet for rough work. For all MCQ questions a wrong answer will result in deduction of marks for a 1-mark question and marks for a 2-mark question. Frequency response of amplifiers. Calculator is allowed whereas charts, graph sheets or tables are NOT allowed in the examination hall. A India is a union of 28 states and 7 union territories. A bear, loosing B bare, loosing C bear, losing D bare, losing Q.

Signal flow graphs and their use in determining transfer functions of systems; transient and steady state analysis of LTI control systems and frequency response. Tools and techniques for LTI control system analysis: Control system compensators: State variable representation and solution of state equation of LTI control systems. Random signals and noise: Analog communication systems: Fundamentals of information theory and channel capacity theorem.

Digital communication systems: Elements of vector calculus: Wave equation, Poynting vector. Plane waves: Transmission lines: Basics of propagation in dielectric waveguide and optical fibers. Basics of Antennas: Dipole antennas; radiation pattern; antenna gain. To login, enter your Registration Number and password provided to you. Kindly go through the various symbols used in the test and understand their meaning before you start the examination. Once you login and after the start of the examination, you can view all the questions in the question paper, by clicking on the View All Questions button in the screen.

Both these sections are compulsory. The GA section consists of 10 questions. Question numbers 1 to 5 are of 1-mark each, while question numbers 6 to 10 are of 2-mark each. The subject specific GATE paper section consists of 55 questions, out of which question numbers 1 to 25 are of 1-mark each, while question numbers 26 to 55 are of 2-mark each.

Depending upon the GATE paper, there may be useful common data that may be required for answering the questions.

If the paper has such useful data, the same can be viewed by clicking on the Useful Common Data button that appears at the top, right hand side of the screen. The computer allotted to you at the examination center runs specialized software that permits only one answer to be selected for multiple-choice questions using a mouse and to enter a suitable number for the numerical answer type questions using the virtual keyboard and mouse.

Your answers shall be updated and saved on a server periodically and also at the end of the examination.

The examination will stop automatically at the end of minutes. In each paper a candidate can answer a total of 65 questions carrying marks. The question paper may consist of questions of multiple choice type MCQ and numerical answer type. The candidate has to choose the correct answer by clicking on the bubble placed before the choice. For numerical answer type questions, each question will have a numerical answer and there will not be any choices.

For these questions, the answer should be enteredby using the virtual keyboard that appears on the monitor and the mouse. All questions that are not attempted will result in zero marks. For all MCQ questions a wrong answer will result in deduction of marks for a 1-mark question and marks for a 2-mark question.

Non-programmable type Calculator is allowed. You must use the Scribble pad provided to you at the examination centre for all your rough work. The Scribble Pad has to be returned at the end of the examination. Declaration by the candidate: I have read and understood all the above instructions. I have also read and understood clearly the instructions given on the admit card and shall follow the same. I also understand that in case I am found to violate any of these instructions, my candidature is liable to be cancelled.

I also confirm that at the start of the examination all the computer hardware allotted to me are in proper working condition. The aircraft take off as soon as its flight plan was filed. A is allowed to B will be allowed to C was allowed to D has been allowed to Q.

All women are entrepreneurs. Some women are doctors. Which of the following conclusions can be logically inferred from the above statements? Many ancient cultures attributed disease to supernatural causes. A impel B dispel C propel D repel Q. Who is the most consistent batsman of these four? Batsman Average Standard deviation K All people with incomes above Rs 10 lakh should fill up Form R, except non residents with income above Rs 15 lakhs, who should fill up Form S.

All others should fill Form T. An example of a person who should fill Form T is A a resident male with annual income Rs 9 lakh B a resident female with annual income Rs 9 lakh C a non-resident male with annual income Rs 16 lakh D a non-resident female with annual income Rs 16 lakh Q.

What is the length of the platform in metres? A B C D Q.

You choose a coin at random and toss it, and it comes up heads. The value of the integral. Clock pulses at a frequency of 1 MHz are applied as shown. B periodic with period 2. D not periodic. The Nyquist plot of is also shown. Which one of the following conclusions is correct? A is an all-pass filter B is a strictly proper transfer function C is a stable and minimum-phase transfer function D The closed-loop system is unstable for sufficiently large and positive Q.

The first load draws 10 kW at 0. A forward bias of 0.

The electron concentration at the edge of the depletion region on the p-side is A 2. Which one of the following is the complete set of essential prime implicants?

Which one of the following options preserves the state diagram? A Input A is connected to 2. D does not exist. Which one of the following compensators achieves this? The parameter is a function of bit energy and noise power spectral density. A system with two independent and identical AWGN channels with noise power spectral density.

The BPSK demodulator receives the sum of outputs of both the channels. Let L be the number of tosses to get this first Head. Neglecting fringe effects, a reduction of the spacing between the plates by a factor of two results in A halving of and no change in B no changes in and halving of C no change in both and D halving of both and Q. Communication and interpersonal skills are important in their own ways. A each B both C all D either Q.

A will get some rest B gets some rest C will be getting some rest D is getting some rest Q. A bear, loosing B bare, loosing C bear, losing D bare, losing Q. If a very large number of throws show the following frequencies of occurrence: On every step of the ladder there are two lights. If one of the lights is red, the other light on that step will always be blue.

If one of the lights on a step is green, the other light on that step will always be yellow. Which of the following statements is not necessarily correct? A The number of red lights is equal to the number of blue lights B The number of green lights is equal to the number of yellow lights C The sum of the red and green lights is equal to the sum of the yellow and blue lights D The sum of the red and blue lights is equal to the sum of the green and yellow lights Q.

The average of four consecutive even numbers is What is the sum of the smallest odd number and second largest even number? The pie chart for exports shows the quantity of each item exported as a percentage of the total quantity of exports. The pie chart for the revenues shows the percentage of the total revenue generated through export of each item. The total quantity of exports of all the items is thousand tonnes and the total revenues are crore rupees.

Which item among the following has generated the maximum revenue per kg? It is decided to simultaneously pump water into the half-full tank while draining it. What is the rate at which water has to be pumped in so that it gets fully filled in 10 minutes? A 4 times the draining rate B 3 times the draining rate C 2. If the resistance R E is increased, then A.

The open-loop gain A v0 , input resistance R in , and output resistance R o for A1 and A2 are as follows: Let be the -transform of []. If the system is damped with a damping ratio 0. For a fixed. The operating frequency is such that the current leads the supply voltage. The magnitude of current is half the value at resonance. The depletion region width X n on the N-side of the junction is 0.

Given that the permittivity of silicon is 1. Neglect channel length modulation effects. Assume an AWGN channel with two-sided noise power spectral density. Which one of the following facts best supports the claim made in the above sentence? A India is a union of 28 states and 7 union territories. B India has a population of over 1. C India is home to 22 official languages and thousands of dialects.

D The Indian cricket team draws players from over ten states. A depressed B depreciated C appreciated D stabilized Q. A a verb B a noun C an adjective D both a verb and a noun Q.

The correct conclusions from this information are: If it takes him thrice as long to row upstream, as to row downstream, then find the stream velocity in km per hour. The expenditure on labour in is Rs. If the company registered a profit of Rs. The batch is rejected if even one of the bulbs is defective.

A batch typically has five defective bulbs. Application Numerical Method P1: Numerical integration M1: Newton-Raphson Method P2: Solution to a transcendental equation M2: Runge-Kutta Method P3: Solution to a system of linear equations M3: Solution to a differential equation M4: The probability that the fourth head appears at the tenth toss is A 0.

Engg - EC Q. The relation between the source voltage V S , the resistance R, the capacitance C, and the current i t is given below: Which one of the following represents the current i t? The recombination rate is directly proportional to A the minority carrier mobility B the minority carrier recombination lifetime C the majority carrier concentration D the excess minority carrier concentration Q. The diode D is ideal. Which one of the following Boolean functions is realized by the circuit?

If Re 0, Im 0, then b equals A B. The transfer function is A 1. The actual signal propagation delay from the transmitter to receiver is A. The maximum deviation of the instantaneous frequency from the carrier frequency. Which one of the following statements is TRUE about the distortion of the received signal due to impedance mismatch? A If is upper triangular, the eigenvalues of are the diagonal elements of it B If is real symmetric, the eigenvalues of are always real and positive C If is real, the eigenvalues of and.

Two such blocks are connected in cascade, as shown in the figure. The transfer function. The built-in potential and the depletion width of the diode under thermal equilibrium conditions, respectively, are A 0. When a gate voltage is applied, a depletion region of width 0. Which one of the following statements is correct? The quantities , , are real numbers. Consider the following three statements.

The system is stable. A non-causal system with the same transfer function is stable. Which one of the following transfer functions has this root locus?

The signal modulates a carrier cos and the resultant signal is passed through an ideal band-pass filter of unity gain with centre frequency of 8 kHz and band-width of 2 kHz. The samples are processed by a uniform quantizer with step size 0.

The output of BSCs are the random variables 1 and 2 as shown in the figure. The surface current. In a democracy, everybody has the freedom to disagree with the government. A dissent B descent C decent D decadent Q. A retract B get back to him C move in reverse D retreat Q. Which of the following is closest in meaning to the word vindicated? A punished B substantiated C appreciated D chastened Q.

What is the sum of the last 5 numbers in the sequence? Find the annual rate of increase in percent assuming it to be uniform over the years. What is the percentage increase in total cost for the company in ? What is the sum of all such possible five digit numbers?

In order to generate electron hole pairs in GaAs, which one of the wavelength C ranges of incident radiation, is most suitable?

Given that: Planks constant is 6. The range of input voltage. Column A Column B 1. Point electromagnetic source P. Highly directional 2. Dish antenna Q. End fire 3. Yagi-Uda antenna R. Each post-office has a probability 1 5 of losing an incoming parcel, independently of all other parcels. If E C is the lowest energy level of the conduction band, E V is the highest energy level of the valance band and E F is the Fermi level, which one of the following represents the energy band diagram for the biased N-type semiconductor?

Which one of the following conditions ensures a nearly constant small signal voltage gain for a wide range of values of R E? The carry-propagation delay of each FA is 12 ns and the sum-propagation delay of each FA is 15 ns. To make this system causal it needs to be cascaded with another LTI system having a transfer function 1. Its input and output are related through the linear constant-coefficient differential equation.

The open loop transfer function has one pole at 0 and two poles at The root locus of the system for varying K is shown in the figure. The distance from the origin to point A is given as 0. The received signal Y is fed to the threshold detector. The output of the threshold detector. To achieve a minimum probability of error. The input is 0 or 1 with equal probability.

Assume a threshold detector with zero threshold at the receiver. Three Hours Maximum Marks: Do not open the seal of the Question Booklet until you are asked to do so by the invigilator. If you find that either: On the right hand side of the ORS, using ONLY a black ink ballpoint pen, i darken the appropriate bubble under each digit of your registration number and ii write your registration number, your name and name of the examination centre and put your signature at the specified location.

This Question Booklet contains 24 pages including blank pages for rough work. After you are permitted to open the seal, check all pages and report discrepancies, if any, to the invigilator. There are a total of 65 questions carrying marks. All these questions are of objective type. Each question has only one correct answer.

For each question darken the bubble of the correct answer. More than one answer bubbled against a question will be treated as an incorrect response. Since bubbles darkened by the black ink ballpoint pen cannot be erased, candidates should darken the bubbles in the ORS very carefully.

Questions Q. Analog and Digital Electronics. Electric Circuits and Fields. Electrical and Electronics Measurements. Electrical Machines. Power Electronics. Power Systems. Digital Electronics Instrumentation.

Transducer, Mech. Complex Analysis. Functional Analysis. Linear Algebra. Linear Programming. Numerical Analysis. Ordinary Differential Equations. Partial Differential Equations. Probability and Statistics. Real Analysis. Engineering Mechanics.

Fluid Mechanics. Industrial Engineering. Machine Design. Manufacturing Engineering. Refrigeration and Air-Conditioning.

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